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Showing posts with label CCNA Discovery 2. Show all posts
Showing posts with label CCNA Discovery 2. Show all posts

DsmbISP Chapter 6 - CCNA Discovery: Working at a Small-to-Medium Business or ISP - Version 4.1


1


Refer to the exhibit. All of the routers are running RIP. There are two paths from router A to the 192.168.3.0 network. Based on the output of the show ip route command on router A, which route was entered into the routing table and why?
A,B,C,D because it has the lowest administrative distance
A,E,F,G,D because it has the lowest administrative distance
A,B,C,D because it has the lowest metric
A,E,F,G,D because it has the lowest metric

2

What two types of businesses would benefit from registering as their own autonomous systems? (Choose two.)
a home business with one ISP connection
a global business with connections to multiple local ISPs
a medium-sized nationwide business with Internet connectivity through different ISPs
a large enterprise with two connections to the same ISP
a small ISP with a single Internet connection through a larger ISP

3


Refer to the exhibit. If connectivity between the two hosts is maintained, what is the maximum number of RIP routers that can be in the path from RTA to HostB?
14
15
16
17

4
Which protocol is an exterior routing protocol?
BGP
EIGRP
OSPF
RIP

5


Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are running RIP and network 10.0.0.0 goes down, when will R3 learn that the network is no longer available?
in 30 seconds
in 60 seconds
in 90 seconds
immediately

6
Consider this routing table entry:

R 172.16.1.0/24 [120/1] via 200.1.1.1 00:00:27 Serial0/1

What type of route is this?
a static route
a default route
a RIP route
an OSPF route
an EIGRP route
a directly-connected route

7
A network is converged and the routing tables are complete. When a packet needs to be forwarded, what is the first criterion used to determine the best path in the routing table?
the route with the highest bandwidth
the route with the smallest administrative distance
the route with the longest address and mask match to the destination
the route with the best combination of administrative distance and lowest cost

8
What device enables an ISP to connect with other ISPs to transfer data?
border gateway router
DSLAM
web server
interior router

9
In which situation would a company register for its own autonomous system number (ASN)?
when the company's ISP adds connection points to the Internet
when additional routers are added to the corporate internetwork
when more than one interior routing protocol is used
when the company uses two or more ISPs

10
Which part of an IP packet does the router use to make routing decisions?
source IP address
source MAC address
destination IP address
destination MAC address

11
Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?
Routers will not allow packets to be forwarded until the network has converged.
Hosts are unable to access their gateway until the network has converged.
Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.
Routers will not allow configuration changes to be made until the network has converged.

12
What is the purpose of the network command in configuring RIP?
to specify whether RIPv1 or RIPv2 will be used as the routing protocol
to allow the router to monitor RIP updates that occur on other routers
to identify the directly connected networks that will be announced in RIP updates
to configure the IP address on an interface that will use RIP
to identify all of the remote networks that should be reachable from the router

13
What information is included in RIPv2 routing updates that is not included in RIPv1 updates?
metric
subnet mask
area identification
hop count
autonomous system number

14
What statement is true regarding an AS number?
AS numbers are controlled and registered for Internet use.
Interior routing protocols require registered AS numbers.
ISPs require all customers to have registered AS numbers.
All routers at an ISP must be assigned the same AS number.

15


Refer to the exhibit. Router B receives a packet with a destination address of 10.16.1.97. What will router B do?
drop the packet
use the default route
forward the packet via the route to 10.16.1.0
forward the packet via the route to 10.16.1.64
16
Which two statements describe static routes? (Choose two.)
They are created in interface configuration mode.
They require manual reconfiguration to accommodate network changes.
They automatically become the default gateway of the router.
They are identified in the routing table with the prefix S
They are automatically updated whenever an interface is reconfigured or shutdown.

17
What term refers to a group of networks that uses the same internal routing policies and is controlled by a single administrative authority?
Internet
intranet
virtual private network
autonomous system

18
What is the purpose of a routing protocol?
It is used to build and maintain ARP tables.
It provides a method for segmenting and reassembling data packets.
It allows an administrator to devise an addressing scheme for the network.
It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.
It provides a procedure for encoding and decoding data into bits for packet forwarding.

19
Which routing protocol is used to exchange data between two different ISPs?
BGP
EIGRP
OSPF
RIP v2

20
What is the difference between interior and exterior routing protocols?
Exterior routing protocols are only used by large ISPs. Interior routing protocols are used by small ISPs.
Interior routing protocols are used to route on the Internet. Exterior routing protocols are used inside organizations.
Exterior routing protocols are used to administer a single autonomous system. Interior routing protocols are used to administer several domains.
Interior routing protocols are used to communicate within a single autonomous system. Exterior routing protocols are used to communicate between multiple autonomous systems.

21


Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration command or commands contributed to the output that is shown?
routerA(config-router)# no version 2
routerA(config)# interface fa0/0
routerA(config-if)# ip address 172.19.0.0 255.255.0.0
routerA(config-router)# network 192.168.3.0
routerA(config)# no ip default-gateway

DsmbISP Chapter 5 - CCNA Discovery: Working at a Small-to-Medium Business or ISP (Version 4.1) 2013


1
Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
VTY interface
console interface
Ethernet interface
secret EXEC mode
privileged EXEC mode
router configuration mode

2


Refer to the exhibit. Users on both SW1 and SW2 report that they are unable to communicate with each other. A network administrator issues show ip interface brief commands on both routers to troubleshoot the connectivity between the two networks. What action will correct the connectivity issue?
Configure a default route on router RA pointing to router RB.
Modify the network address of the serial link from a /30 to a /24.
Issue a clock rate command on the s0/0/0 interface on router RA.
Issue a no shutdown command on the s0/0/0 interface on router RB.
Issue a debug ip rip on both routers to verify that the routing protocol is functioning properly.

3


Which of the following identifies the correct items needed to initially configure a router?
1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC's serial port
2) a straight through cable
3) the router's console port
1) PC's Ethernet port
2) a crossover cable
3) the router's Ethernet port
1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC's serial port
2) a rollover cable
3) the router's Ethernet port
1) PC's Ethernet port
2) a rollover cable
3) the router's console port
1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC's serial port
2) a rollover cable
3) the router's console port
1) PC's Ethernet port
2) a rollover cable
3) the router's Ethernet port

4
A router has a valid operating system and a configuration stored in NVRAM. When the router boots up, which mode will display?
global configuration mode
setup mode
ROM monitor mode
user EXEC mode

5
Which two statements are true regarding the user EXEC mode? (Choose two.)
All router commands are available.
Global configuration mode can be accessed by entering the enable command.
This is the default mode on an unconfigured router when first powered up.
Interfaces and routing protocols can be configured.
Only some aspects of the router configuration can be viewed.

6
A network administrator needs to configure a router. Which of the following connection methods requires network functionality to be accessible?
console
AUX
Telnet
modem

7
Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature? (Choose two.)
View a list of commands entered in a previous session.
Recall up to 15 command lines by default.
Set the command history buffer size.
Recall previously entered commands.
Save command lines in a log file for future reference.

8
An administrator enters the show ip route command into a router. What type of information will be displayed?
the current configuration stored in RAM
the networks learned from other neighbors
the encapsulation and bandwidth of every interface
the private IP addresses translated to public IP addresses

9
What is the correct command sequence to configure a router host name to "LAB_A"?
Router> enable
Router# configure terminal
Router(config)# hostname LAB_A
Router> enable
Router# hostname LAB_A
Router> enable
Router# configure router
Router(config)# hostname LAB_A
Router> enable
Router(config)# host name LAB_A

10
Which three sets of commands are required to enable administrators to connect to a switch on the same LAN via Telnet for configuration and management? (Choose three.)
Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.64 255.255.255.192
Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# switchport port-security
Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.126 255.255.255.192

Switch1(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch1(config)# line con 0 
Switch1(config-line)# enable password cisco
Switch1(config-line)# login
Switch1(config)# line vty 0 15
Switch1(config-line)# password cisco
Switch1(config-line)# login
Switch1(config)# enable secret class
Switch1(config)# exit

11


Refer to the exhibit. A company always uses the last valid IP address in a subnetwork as the IP address of the router LAN interface. A network administrator is using a laptop to configure switch X with a default gateway via the switch console port. The switch VLAN 1 interface is assigned IP address 192.168.5.68/26. What command will the administrator use to assign a default gateway to the switch?
X(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.5.1
X(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.5.126
X(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.5.190
X(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.5.192
X(config)# ip route 192.168.5.0 255.255.255.192 192.168.5.1

12
A network technician is attempting to add an older workstation to a Cisco switched LAN. The technician has manually configured the workstation to full-duplex mode in order to enhance the network performance of the workstation. However, when the device is attached to the network, performance degrades and excessive collisions are detected. What is the cause of this problem?
The host is configured in a different subnet from the subnet of the switch.
There is a duplex mismatch between the workstation and switch port.
The switch port is running at a different speed from the speed of the workstation NIC.
The host has been configured with a default gateway that is different from that of the switch.

13
In what two ways does SDM differ from the IOS CLI? (Choose two.)
SDM is used for in-band management only. The IOS CLI can be used for in-band and out-of-band management.
SDM is accessed through a Telnet application. The IOS CLI is accessed through a web browser.
SDM is available for all router platforms. The IOS CLI is available for a limited number of Cisco devices.
SDM utilizes GUI buttons and text boxes. The IOS CLI requires the use of text-based commands.
SDM is used for advanced configuration tasks. The IOS CLI is preferred for initial basic device configuration.

14
When utilizing SDM Express, which two configuration options allow a router serial interface to obtain an IP address without manually configuring it? (Choose two.)
Static IP Address
Frame Relay encapsulation
IP Negotiated
HDLC encapsulation
IP Unnumbered

15


Refer to the exhibit. From the router console, an administrator is unable to ping a Catalyst switch that is located in another building. What can the administrator do from her location to check the IP configuration of the attached switch?
Open an SDM session with the switch from her desktop.
Telnet to the switch from the router console.
Use the show cdp neighbors detail command from the router console.
The administrator must go to the switch location and make a console connection to check these settings.

16
Which two statements are true about the NVRAM on a Cisco device?(Choose two.)
stores the routing table
retains contents when power is removed
stores the startup configuration file
contains the running configuration file
stores the ARP table


17
What step must be completed before port security can be enabled on an interface?
The interface must be shut down.
The interface must be in access mode.
The maximum number of MAC addresses must be configured.
The violation mode must be configured.

18
What three settings can be made in the SDM Express basic configuration screen? (Choose three.)
host name
DHCP options
domain name
interface IP addresses
enable secret password
DNS server IP addresses

19


Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output of the show port-security interface fastethernet0/1 command on the switch, which statement about the switch port is true?
The port has been shut down.
Only three unique MAC addresses are permitted to use this port.
There are ten devices with different MAC addresses connected to this port.
Port security has been violated seven times on this port.

20
What option within Cisco SDM Express must be configured to allow hosts that receive IP address settings from the router to resolve names on the network or Internet?
host name
domain name
DHCP address pool
DNS server IP address

21
Which three pieces of information about a neighbor device can be obtained by the show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)
platform
routing protocol
connected interface of neighbor device
device ID
IP addresses of all interfaces
enable mode password

22
Which three encapsulation types can be set on a serial interface by an administrator who is using SDM Express? (Choose three.)
ATM
CHAP
Frame Relay
HDLC
PAP
PPP

23


Which function is a unique responsibility of the DCE devices shown in the exhibit?
transmission of data
reception of data
clocking for the synchronous link
noise cancellation in transmitted data

24


Refer to the exhibit. Which series of commands will correctly configure the serial interface on Router2?
Router2(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router2(config-if)# ip address 192.168.6.11 255.255.255.252
Router2(config-if)# clock rate 64000
Router2(config-if)# no shutdown
Router2(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router2(config-if)# ip address 192.168.6.11 255.255.255.252
Router2(config-if)# no shutdown
Router2(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router2(config-if)# ip address 192.168.6.9 255.255.255.252
Router2(config-if)# clock rate 64000
Router2(config-if)# no shutdown
Router2(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router2(config-if)# ip address 192.168.6.9 255.255.255.252
Router2(config-if)# no shutdown

25
How does the SYST LED on the catalyst 2960 switch indicate a POST failure?
blinks rapidly green
steady amber
steady green
no light

26
To save time, IOS commands may be partially entered and then completed by typing which key or key combination?
Tab
Ctrl-P
Ctrl-N
Up Arrow
Right Arrow
Down Arrow

DsmbISP Chapter 4 - CCNA Discovery: Working at a Small-to-Medium Business or ISP - Version 4.1 2013


1


Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
The host subnet mask is incorrect.
The default gateway is a network address.
The default gateway is a broadcast address.
The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.

2


Refer to the exhibit. Which range of IP addresses would allow hosts that are connected to the Router1 Fa0/0 interface to access outside networks?
192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.95
192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.94
192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.96
192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.127
192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.128

3
What is the range of the first octet in a Class B address?
127 to 191
127 to 192
128 to 191
128 to 192

4
Which two statements describe classful IP addresses? (Choose two.)
It is possible to determine which class an address belongs to by reading the first bit.
The number of bits used to identify the hosts is fixed by the class of the network.
Only Class A addresses can be represented by high-order bits 100.
Up to 24 bits can make up the host portion of a Class C address.
All subnets in a network are the same size.
Three of the five classes of addresses are reserved for multicasts and experimental use.

5
Which IPv4 class provides the highest number of host addresses per network?
Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
Class E

6
Convert the decimal number 231 into its binary equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
11110010
11011011
11110110
11100111
11100101
11101110

7
Which IPv4 class of addresses provides the most networks?
Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
Class E

8
How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?
254
255
256
510
511
512

9
A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?
Configure static NAT for all ten users.
Configure dynamic NAT for ten users.
Configure dynamic NAT with overload.
Configure DHCP and static NAT.

10
IPv6 increases the IP address size from 32 bits to how many bits?
64
96
128
192
256
512

11


Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT for the 10.1.1.0/24 inside network. HostA has sent a request to the web server. What is the destination IP address of the return packet from the web server?
10.1.1.2
172.30.20.1
172.30.20.10
192.168.1.1

12
What is the network broadcast address for a Class C address of 192.168.32.0 with the default subnet mask?
192.168.0.0
192.168.0.255
192.168.32.0
192.168.32.254
192.168.32.255

13
In an 8 bit binary number, what is the total number of combinations of the eight bits?
128
254
255
256
512
1024

14
Which statement accurately describes public IP addresses?
Public addresses cannot be used within a private network.
Public IP addresses must be unique across the entire Internet.
Public addresses can be duplicated only within a local network.
Public IP addresses are only required to be unique within the local network.
Network administrators are free to select any public addresses to use for network devices that access the Internet.


15
Static NAT works by mapping a specific inside local IP address to what other specific address type?
inside global
outside local
outside global
private IP address